1. In post partum women early and frequent ambulation is encouraged to:
a. To reduce the risk of uterine infection
b. To prevent puerperal psychosis
c. To reduce the risk of deep vein thrombosis
d. To encourage physical well being
(B)

2. Symptoms of pre eclampsia include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Increased blood glucose
b. Increased blood pressure
c. Generalized edema
d. Proteinuria
(A)

3. Side effects of oral contraception include all EXCEPT:
a. Nausea and vomiting
b. Vaginal bleeding
c. Breast tenderness
d. Pelvic inflammatory diseases
(D)

4. The term abortion is best defined as:
a. Termination of pregnancy for medical reasons
b. Accidental removal of the products of conception from the uterus
c. Termination of pregnancy before the fetus is viab le
d. Termination of pregnancy before the end of the third trimester
(B)

5. An entopic pregnancy is best defined as a pregnancy that occurs:
a. After the onset menopause
b. Outside the uterus
c. Before the onset of menstruation
d. In the fallopian tubes only
(A)

A.C. Practice Examination Medical Surgical Nursing

6. Which of the following instructions about collecting clean catch midstream
urine is not correct.
164
a. Save the first 30 cc of urine
b. Discard the first 30 cc of urine
c. Cleaning the urethral meatus before obtaining the specimen
d. Void directly ion the specimen container
(B)

7. Which of the following statements characterizes cancer cells:
a. Are a response to an appropriate stimulus
b. They meet the needs of the body
c. They continue to grow regardless of the needs of the body
d. They stop to grow when the needs
(B)

8. The nurse prepares the client for a gastric analysis as part of initial
assessment.
A typical laboratory finding of gastric analysis in client with pernicious
anemia is:
a. High bile concentration
b. Absence of hydrochloric acid
c. Low bicarbonate concentration
d. Immature red blood cells
(C)

9. What is the best principles in traction application:
a. Allow weights to hang freely in place
b. Hold weights up if the client is shifting position in bed
c. Remove weights up if the client is being moved up in bed
d. Lighten weights for short periods if the client complains of pain
(C)

10. Factors that affect the composition of urine is:
a. Nutritional status
b. Time of the day
c. Status of kidney
d. A & C only
(A)

11. Pyelonephritis is likely to develop due to:
a. Low urine acidity
b. Stagnation of urine in renal pelvis
c. Impaired circulation
d. Poor filtration
(A)

12. Surgical procedure that involves removal of stones from kidney pelvis is:
a. Nephrolithtomy
b. Cystolithtomy
c. Urethrolithotomy
d. Pyelolithotomy
(C)

13. All of the following are typical symptoms of prosthetic hypertrophy
EXCEPT:
a. Difficulty in urinating
b. Frequency of urination
c. Frequent voiding at night (nocturia)
d. Increase in the size and force of the urinary strea (D)
14. Which of the following diagnostic tests can detect abnormal breast massed
smaller than 1 cm
a. Ultrasound (sonography)
b. Incision biopsy
c. Mammography
d. None of the above
(B)

15. One of the symptoms of diabetes mellitus is:
a. Polydipsia
b. Pale, cool skin
c. Anuria
d. Anorexia
(C)

16. A patient on insulin therapy who has missed a meal might develop:
a. Hyperglycemic reaction
b. Ketoacidosis
c. Hypoglycemic reaction
d. Lypodysthophy
(B)

17. What type of precaution is applied for a patient suspected to have viral
hepatitis with type not yet determined:
a. Enteric, blood and body fluid precautions
b. Blood precaution only
c. Enteric precaution only
d. Respiratory precaution
(B)

18. In caring for a patient with Hepatitis A in the acute stage, the nurse must
ensure that the patient is:
a. Having adequate rest
b. Eating large meals
166
c. Scratching his skin frequently
d. Ambulating outside his room
(A)

19. Common early manifestations of hepatitis include:
a. High grade fever
b. Mild flu-like symptoms
c. Severe skin jaundice
d. Enlarged liver and spleen
(A)

20. The objective or corrective surgery for removal detachment is to:
a. Aspirate the vitreous humor
b. Create a drainage for aqueous humor
c. Create a scar that adheres the retine to choroid
d. Enlarged liver and spleen (C

1. In post partum women early and frequent ambulation is encouraged to:
a. To reduce the risk of uterine infection
b. To prevent puerperal psychosis
c. To reduce the risk of deep vein thrombosis
d. To encourage physical well being
(B)

2. Symptoms of pre eclampsia include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Increased blood glucose
b. Increased blood pressure
c. Generalized edema
d. Proteinuria
(A)

3. Side effects of oral contraception include all EXCEPT:
a. Nausea and vomiting
b. Vaginal bleeding
c. Breast tenderness
d. Pelvic inflammatory diseases
(D)

4. The term abortion is best defined as:
a. Termination of pregnancy for medical reasons
b. Accidental removal of the products of conception from the uterus
c. Termination of pregnancy before the fetus is viab le
d. Termination of pregnancy before the end of the third trimester
(B)

5. An entopic pregnancy is best defined as a pregnancy that occurs:
a. After the onset menopause
b. Outside the uterus
c. Before the onset of menstruation
d. In the fallopian tubes only
(A)

A.C. Practice Examination Medical Surgical Nursing

6. Which of the following instructions about collecting clean catch midstream
urine is not correct.
164
a. Save the first 30 cc of urine
b. Discard the first 30 cc of urine
c. Cleaning the urethral meatus before obtaining the specimen
d. Void directly ion the specimen container
(B)

7. Which of the following statements characterizes cancer cells:
a. Are a response to an appropriate stimulus
b. They meet the needs of the body
c. They continue to grow regardless of the needs of the body
d. They stop to grow when the needs
(B)

8. The nurse prepares the client for a gastric analysis as part of initial
assessment.
A typical laboratory finding of gastric analysis in client with pernicious
anemia is:
a. High bile concentration
b. Absence of hydrochloric acid
c. Low bicarbonate concentration
d. Immature red blood cells
(C)

9. What is the best principles in traction application:
a. Allow weights to hang freely in place
b. Hold weights up if the client is shifting position in bed
c. Remove weights up if the client is being moved up in bed
d. Lighten weights for short periods if the client complains of pain
(C)

10. Factors that affect the composition of urine is:
a. Nutritional status
b. Time of the day
c. Status of kidney
d. A & C only
(A)

11. Pyelonephritis is likely to develop due to:
a. Low urine acidity
b. Stagnation of urine in renal pelvis
c. Impaired circulation
d. Poor filtration
(A)

12. Surgical procedure that involves removal of stones from kidney pelvis is:
a. Nephrolithtomy
b. Cystolithtomy
c. Urethrolithotomy
d. Pyelolithotomy
(C)

13. All of the following are typical symptoms of prosthetic hypertrophy
EXCEPT:
a. Difficulty in urinating
b. Frequency of urination
c. Frequent voiding at night (nocturia)
d. Increase in the size and force of the urinary strea (D)
14. Which of the following diagnostic tests can detect abnormal breast massed
smaller than 1 cm
a. Ultrasound (sonography)
b. Incision biopsy
c. Mammography
d. None of the above
(B)

15. One of the symptoms of diabetes mellitus is:
a. Polydipsia
b. Pale, cool skin
c. Anuria
d. Anorexia
(C)

16. A patient on insulin therapy who has missed a meal might develop:
a. Hyperglycemic reaction
b. Ketoacidosis
c. Hypoglycemic reaction
d. Lypodysthophy
(B)

17. What type of precaution is applied for a patient suspected to have viral
hepatitis with type not yet determined:
a. Enteric, blood and body fluid precautions
b. Blood precaution only
c. Enteric precaution only
d. Respiratory precaution
(B)

18. In caring for a patient with Hepatitis A in the acute stage, the nurse must
ensure that the patient is:
a. Having adequate rest
b. Eating large meals
166
c. Scratching his skin frequently
d. Ambulating outside his room
(A)

19. Common early manifestations of hepatitis include:
a. High grade fever
b. Mild flu-like symptoms
c. Severe skin jaundice
d. Enlarged liver and spleen
(A)

20. The objective or corrective surgery for removal detachment is to:
a. Aspirate the vitreous humor
b. Create a drainage for aqueous humor
c. Create a scar that adheres the retine to choroid
d. Enlarged liver and spleen (C)